If it's immoral for a normally intelligent man to seduce a mildy retarded woman where does that leave the woman if she enjoys sex?Let's say that with the exception of he tubes being tied, she has a fully functioning adult body with the same sexual drives and needs as normally intelligent woman. Do you (morally) limit her partners to men of similar mental capacity and more than likely limited sexual experience and fumbling technique, or do you (morally) allow her to have sex with normally intelligent men who are not likely to want to have meaningful relationships with her beyond the sexual part.Skankiness is morally OK in my book only when all participants understand what the score is (that is, no one's making false assumptions about What It Means), and I'm not sure the woman in this scenario would.
I guess I'm thinking operationally of a fully, grown woman who would lack the mental capacity to make normally obvious critical distinctions in interpreting the intentions of others, and a man could seduce her by just being nice to her and buying her dinner and telling her she was pretty, or something similar. Even if you assume that the person doesn't form any romantic attachments and thus get broken-hearted when you dump him or her, there are other issues that can be involved that he or she wouldn't understand fully - most notably pregnancy and STDs.
I forgot to finish my thought on my last post responding to Indygrrl's observation.